So I have a hypothetical question. For me it certainly won't matter for the foreseeable future, but I was curious and wanted to see what you guys think or if any of you have personal experience.

Can you receive income from a business that you own, but do not manage or work at, even if the money is more than the SGA amount?

Here's my hypothetical example. What if you own a successful food truck. You work in the retrofitted food truck serving cajun-asian fusion paleo gluten free tacos. And of course the people love it. Pretty soon you hire a couple of other people to work a couple of other trucks. Eventually you wonder to yourself "Self, why the hell are you working in this hot ass metal box ten hours a day, making your spasms worse and risking ruining your shoulders with all that awkward reaching to grab the ten gallon jugs of Sriracha from over your head, when you're making more income from the labor of these other people working the additional trucks than from working your own truck?". So you decide to hire someone to work in your truck and now you are just sitting at home and answering the phone if your workers have a problem.

Then you start thinking to yourself, "Self, why are you sitting at home staring at the phone when you could pay someone to run your little company, move to Alaska, buy a little cabin and pursue your one true passion, making ice sculptures of prominent Fijian politicians?"

So what if you didn't sell your foot truck business, you just paid a manager to manage it and moved away? No longer is your labor contributing to the company, but you still own it 100%, and your manager might get in touch with you to okay big things like buying a new truck or switching from tacos to tapas, but otherwise you're not involved in the day to day business. Is your income still SGA? It wouldn't seem to be to me.

I'm sure some SSDI reviewer might look closely into it, but if you're really not working at the company or involved in any way in day to day decisions, it would seem pretty straight forward that this is now an investment and not income... and since you can have unlimited investments and assets and still be on SSDI, you ought to be able to continue to get income from your company, right?

Say you were making $5,000 a month from your taco trucks and you could sell the company for $1,000,000. If you sold the company you could definitely invest that $1,000,000 you gained from the sale in XYZ company and earn yourself $5,000 a month in dividends while continuing to draw SSDI. Why wouldn't you be able to do this if you owned the company outright instead of owning shares?

Whadda y'all think?